If Anne boleyn was born in 1509, she would still have a few more years of childbearing before she was considered infertile. What i’m getting at is why would Henry execute her even if she had committed a treason that was never proved, if maybe, just maybe, she could eventually give birth to the son Henry yearned for?
Do you mean 1507? Some historians believe that Anne was born in 1501, making her around 35 when she was executed, and others believe that she was born in 1507, making her around 29 when she was executed. 35 would make her quite old by Tudor standards but her pregnancy in late 1535/early 1536 which resulted in the miscarriage in January 1536 shows that she was still fertile. Anne's date of birth is important when considering her downfall as if she was only 29 then she had quite a few years of potential childbearing ahead of her, whereas if she was 35 then you could say that Henry was happy to trade her in for a new and more fertile wife.
If Henry truly believed that she was guilty of the crimes then he would have had her executed regardless of her age. He could not have a wife and Queen who had crossed him in such a way. It all depends on what you believe Henry's role in Anne's fall to be. Some believe that he was an innocent victim, in that he was led to believe that Anne WAS guilty, others believe that he ordered Cromwell to get rid of Anne.